Creativity test
Moderators: Jay2k1, DavidM, amh
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proof that one equals two:
assume a=1 and b=1
a=b
multiply by a
a^2 =b*a
subtract b^2
a^2 - b^2 = a*b - b^2
factor
(a+b) * (a-b) = b * (a-b)
divide by (a-b)
a+b = b
replace
1+1 =1
add
2=1
now since we all know that 2 does not equal one, where is the fault in the equation?
I was wondering if any of you have seen this before. If not, can you figure it out?
assume a=1 and b=1
a=b
multiply by a
a^2 =b*a
subtract b^2
a^2 - b^2 = a*b - b^2
factor
(a+b) * (a-b) = b * (a-b)
divide by (a-b)
a+b = b
replace
1+1 =1
add
2=1
now since we all know that 2 does not equal one, where is the fault in the equation?
I was wondering if any of you have seen this before. If not, can you figure it out?
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